Question: I've always read and been told that in Western/S&P/European communities, we've never used Ladino/Judezmo/Judeo-Spanish, but rather regular or Spanish and Portuguese.From what little reading on the history I've done, though, it's what we now call Judeo-Spanish that preserves how Spanish was generally spoken in Spain around the time of the expulsion and some time afterward. Doesn't that mean that the Spanish that the Jews who landed in Amsterdam, Venice, etc. spoke was much more like contemporary Judeo-Spanish than modern Castillian? (Granted it wouldn't have the influences that other dialects gained from Turkish, Greek, etc.)